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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 05:14

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Are you glad that political prisoner Andrew Tate has made it safely to the United States, where his freedom of speech is protected?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.